Why, when the matter is revisited in Paul’s writing when pedophilia was very much a known/common cultural issue, did the extremely pedantic Paul (seriously, some of his sentences are paragraphs long) not specifically clarify the issue? Surely as a “Pharisee among Pharisees,” he would
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Given Moses’ life (14th century BC) was centuries before Greek history began (750 BC) it doesn’t make sense that he or his contemporaries would have taken pains to distinguish from a Greco-Roman behavior. There’s no evidence that pedophilia was a significant issue in Canaan or Egypt, the cultures from which the fledgling Hebrew nation was being deliberately distinguished, so the pedophilia explanation is a complete non-sequitur in context.